WAS THOMAS IN A STATE OF SHOCK WHEN HE SAID MY LORD MY GOD?

We cannot read any direct attestation from Jesus that he is god. His words were incomplete during his earthly ministry so should we expect him to say these things? What we can read is an indirect claim of deity.

Here goes…

John 20:24-29
[24]But Thomas, one of the twelve, called Didymus, was not with them when Jesus came.
[25]The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.
[26]And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you.
[27]Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
[28]And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
[29]Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

There are three possible reality on the statement that “bec thou hast seen me thou hast believed”. These are:

1. Bec thou hast seen me thou hast believed that i am alive.

2. Bec thou hast seen me thou hast believed that im both lord and god.

3. Bec thou hast seen me thou has believed that im alive and both your lord and god.

Verifying, was Thomas in a state of shock when he blurted, my lord my god?

Clearly, Jesus response is a confirmatory agent to what thomas reaction has to mean:

because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed

As pertinently, this response is a direct reaction to what thomas said, my lord my god, confirming that indeed thomas was in a state of belief rather than a state of shock, and being a pertinent response to thomas words, its quite clear now which of the three possibilities is the correct option for the chain of conversation.

I believe number 3 fits this chain of conversation as rather convincingly. Therefore, it was Jesus indirect attestation that he is god, bec if not, was jesus ignoring thomas words when he said my lord my god so to what basis did he responded with “bec thou hast seen me thou hast believed”?

It would be senseless if thomas words would be ignored as nothing as reference point would be the basis of jesus response. Therefore Thomas words must have been an expression of faith for Jesus to have responded in this way.

So when jesus responded, it should have meant this way:

because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed that im alive and your lord and god?

And being a pertinent response to thomas words, so when it say:

blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed

Its Jesus confirming the words of thomas that indeed he is god, bec it was confirmed as he implied, blessed are those who have not seen me yet believed as how thomas did: My lord my god!

So was Thomas in a state of shock?

How could it be when there was a precedent to this event. Prior, they already knew Jesus is god. They already preached John 1:1, 14 “the word was god. The word become flesh.”. So Thomas has already a preconceived idea that jesus is god so how could he be shocked?

And how could he be shocked when beforehand he was informed by the apostles that Jesus appeared to them to which he responded:

The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.

So how could he be shocked when he was informed prior to the event? There was already preconception–an idea beforehand–regarding Jesus appearance so it wont come as a shock for Thomas if ever he would appear again. Though Thomas was unbelieving yet still, there was preconception. With preconception, there would be no shock.

Comparatively when saying: the president is in our baranggay. You would answer: i dont believe you. And when you see him, would you say: oh my god! The president is in our baranggay, i didnt thought so!?

Sounds unseemly, right? There was already preconception, so you wouldnt be shocked. So is with the Thomas state of shock was, isnt it?

Clearly, Thomas was not shocked.

Lastly, there was a precedent already that would incite him not to be shocked but rather believing, that is, seeing the print of the nails and spear on his hands and side as it say:

John 20:27
[27]Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.

That would incite him to rather believe as he sworn seeing the prints of the nails and spear on his hands and side is possible precedent for him to believe as he said:

John 20:25
[25]The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.

Therefore having a precedent to believe he wouldnt be shocked so when he said: my lord and my god it cannot be out of shock. Its out of belief. How come? Bec he already saw the signs–jesus wounds in his hands and side, therefore an indication that he believes on him and not out of shock. Thomas gave a guarantee that he would believe upon seeing the wounds as he said:

“Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe…”

So he believed bec he saw the wounds…

The thing is others were putting doubt to it by saying: if thomas knew that he is god why did he flee during jesus arrest when he knew he was already with god almighty?

Sounds convincing, right? Yet they knew too that jesus is powerful he can calm storms or wither a tree, yet why did they still run away?

Of course, its human nature. Seeing that jesus is not doing anything and being in a helpless situation, having qualms about it, they run. Its normal.

But what is undeniable is, jesus admitted his being god though in indirect terms, yet its a remarkable progress to how he would be socially known, much so by his apostles and us, his true disciples.

Jesus is really a true god as confirmed by this event. Much so, other verse corroborates it:

JOHN 1:18 THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD… (monogenes theos in the manuscript of john P66 and P75) JOHN 1:1 THE WORD WAS GOD HEB 1:8-10 THE SON IS THE CREATOR OF THE UNIVERSE…

For being god and creator then he is a preexisting god and for that Thomas was correct.

TAO BA SI HESUS NONG UMAKYAT SA LANGIT AT TAO BANG BABABA?

Sabi ng mga INC e si hesus tao ng umakyat sa langit at taong bababa sa kanyang pagbabalik. Ginagamit nila ito bilang patunay:

Acts 1:11
[11]Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.

So kita dito, na kung paanong nakita si hesus umakyat e ganon din sa kanyang pagbabalik e makikita siya. Ang tanong, meron ba siyang laman at buto sa puntong umaakyat na siya sa langit?

Wala po dahil kailanman e hinde makakabahagi ang me laman at dugo sa langit:

1 Corinthians 15:50
[50]Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

So ibig sabihin, walang tao kailanman na makakarating sa langit. Ang mga kristyano, e mamanahin ang langit:

Matthew 25:34
[34]Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:

Ibig sabihin e wala silang laman at dugo sa panahong nasa langit na sila. Ganito rin ang mangyayari kay hesus dahil magkakaparehas sila ng kapalaran, mawawala yung laman at dugo nila, at itoy pareparehas nilang dadanasin dahil magkakatulad sila:

Philippians 3:21
[21]Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.

Kaya kung ang mga kristyano e walang laman at dugo sa langit e ganon din si hesus. At dahil magkakaparehas silang me glorious body kaya pareparehas din sila sa kapalaran. Magiging parang anghel sila:

Matthew 22:30
[30]For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

So ang para bang anghel at walang laman at buto e tao pa rin?
Hinde na po kasi by nature, hinde na nila taglay ang nature ng isang tao kaya hinde na sila tao sa panahong nasa langit sila.

Katunayan, walang isang verse na sigurado ang nagsasabing me tao na maninirahan sa langit o makakarating man sa langit, dahil ang makakarating lang don e yung me katawang panglangit at ang mga ito e hinde sinasabing mga tao pa rin.

1 Corinthians 15:49
[49]And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.

Though ang tao pagkabuhay na muli sa patay e magkakaroon siya ng spiritual body pero ang tanong kailan siya magkakaroon nito: immediately pagkatapos mabuhay muli o pagkatapos ng ilang araw pagkabuhay na muli?

1 Corinthians 15:44
[44]It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

Si hesus nong mabuhay muli e me laman pa at buto so kita dito na wala pa siyang spiritual body pagkatapos mabuhay muli, nagkaroon lang siya ng spiritual body 40 days after niyang mabuhay muli nong paakyat na siya sa langit, nong mawala na ang laman at dugo niya:

1 Corinthians 15:50
[50]Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

So kung paanong umakyat siya sa langit na walang laman at dugo ganon din siya pagbaba niya. Wala siyang laman at dugo pero nakikita pa rin siya so tao ba ang ganon?
Hinde na di ba?
Ang batayan nilang si hesus e tao na sa langit e dahil me mababasang ganito:

Hebrews 10:12
[12]But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

Acts 17:31
[31]Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.

Sabi,

A. BUT THIS MAN SAT DOWN ON THE RIGHT HAND OF GOD.

B. HE WILL JUDGE THE WORLD BY THAT MAN

Pinalalabas nila na tao yung nakaupo sa kanan ng ama at tao yung huhukom sa judgment day. Pero kung titingnan sa greek text kung totoong MAN ang sinasabi e wala pong kasiguraduhan.

Una tingnan natin yung greek word na ginamit:

Greek: αὐτός
Transliteration: autos
Pronunciation: ow-tos’
Definition: From the particle αὖ au (perhaps akin to the base of G109 through the idea of a baffling wind; backward); the reflexive pronoun self used (alone or in the compound of G1438) of the third person and (with the proper personal pronoun) of the other persons: – her it (-self) one the other (mine) own said ([self-] the) same ([him- my- thy-]) self [your-] selves she that their (-s) them ([-selves]) there [-at -by -in -into -of -on -with] they (these) things this (man) those together very which. Compare G848 .

So kung itranslate natin, pwede itong ganito:

A. BUT THIS SAT DOWN ON THE RIGHT HAND OF GOD

So hinde sinasabing MAN yung uupo sa tabi ng dios. Walang sinabing ganon, di ba? Pangalawa, tingnan din natin yung greek word na ginamit sa pangalawa:

Greek: ἀνήρ
Transliteration: anēr
Pronunciation: an’-ayr
Definition: A primary word (compare G444); a man (properly as an individual male): – fellow husband man sir.

So kung itranslate, pwede itong ganito:

B. HE WILL JUDGE THE WORLD BY THAT HUSBAND…

So kita dito na hinde pa rin MAN yung hesus na hahatol sa judgment day kundi husband. Husband po ng iglesia si hesus.

Revelation 19:7-8
[7]Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
[8]And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.

Anong napatunayan natin? Si hesus nong pumunta sa langit e hinde na tao. Bakit? Kasi wala na siyang nature ng totoong tao. Wala siyang laman at dugo…

THERE IS SALVATION OUTSIDE THE CHURCH

Firstly, you have to answer this question before you proceed reading my argument: ARE SINLESS PEOPLE SAVED?

Of course, you would say, they are as they cannot be condemned. The question is, are there sinless people outside the church?

Of course, right? What is their judgment?

Let us hear from the one rabbi:

John 9:41
[41]Jesus said unto them, If ye were blind, ye should have no sin: but now ye say, We see; therefore your sin remaineth.

It say, a blind person is sinless. Meaning, in the spiritual sense. A blind person is spiritually blind. It speaks about his ignorance of the truth. Or that, his understanding is obscured:

Ephesians 4:18
[18]Having the understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart:

It speaks about the blindness of the eyes of understanding that when opened shall have hope. Meaning, blindness is in regards to the lack of understanding. Therefore, being blind is the lack of understanding.

Ephesians 1:18
[18]The eyes of your understanding being enlightened; that ye may know what is the hope of his calling, and what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints,

An example are idolaters who are ignorant of the truth. God winks at their idolatry. He overlooks it.

Acts 17:29-30
[29]Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man’s device.
[30]And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

Another spiritual blindness is manifested by paul:

1 Timothy 1:12-13
[12]And I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who hath enabled me, for that he counted me faithful, putting me into the ministry;
[13]Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and injurious: but I obtained mercy, because I did it ignorantly in unbelief.

Unbelief bec of ignorance is excusable. Fact is, paul was excused even without repentance. Therefore, to be spiritually blind is to be ignorant of the truth, as bro eli soriano said: ignorance of the law excuses anyone.

It corroborated what jesus said that blind people are sinless. So being outside the church, do you think there is no salvation for them?

Nope. God said, they are blessed and to be blessed in the eyes of god is to be saved.

Psalms 32:2
[2]Blessed is the man unto whom the LORD imputeth not iniquity, and in whose spirit there is no guile.

Therefore, for a blind person outside the church to be blessed, is a direct proclamation that there is salvation outside the true church of god.

What is their basis for their doctrine?

Ephesians 2:12
[12]That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

Romans 5:12
[12]Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

The question is: Does it include the blind who god said are sinless? They are blessed so how could they have shared the same fate with them? This salvation outside the church is supported by paul:

1 Timothy 4:10
[10]For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.

Meaning God can save other people than those who believe as emphasized by using Especially, right? Therefore god can save unbelievers. Who are these unbelievers?

The blind who are good people as i elaborated above.

Thank ypu and god bless.

IGLESIA NI CRISTO BA TONG IBANG TUPA NA WALA PA SA KAWAN?

Ang topic e sino tong “other sheep outside the fold”?

John 10:16
[16]And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.

Hayaan nating ang bibliya magpapaliwanag. Ano tong fold o kawan na sinasabi? Ito bay iglesia?
Pero paanong kung pumasok ka o lumabas sa kawan e ligtas ka pa?

So iglesia nga kaya ang tinutukoy?

John 10:7,9,16
[7]Then said Jesus unto them again, Verily, verily, I say unto you, I am the door of the sheep.
[9]I am the door: by me if any man enter in, he shall be saved, and shall go in and out, and find pasture.
[16]And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.

So alin tong kawan na pwedeng pumasok don at lumabas at ligtas ka pa rin?

Sa puntong “other sheep”, sino sila? Sila ba yung INC ni manalo?

Hinde po.
Sila yung wala sa iglesia na tatawagin din para maging kristyano simula sa panahon ni hesus hanggang ngayon ayon dito:

Acts 2:38-39
[38]Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
[39]For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.

Sino tong “other sheep”?

Sabi, AS MANY AS THE LORD SHALL CALL… Iyan ay tumutukoy sa panahong una hanggang sa huli. Fact is, naganap ito simula sa panahong una ng maconvert sila sa iglesia. Sila yung “other sheep”.

Acts 2:40-41
[40]And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.
[41]Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

At sabi, TO ALL THAT ARE AFAR OFF. Ito rin ay kabilang sa other sheep yung nasa malayong lugar at panahon na tumutukoy sa ating lugar at panahon.

Sino sila?
Ito bay INC o MCGI?

Ayon sa gawa 20:28 e binili ni hesus ang iglesia ng dios sa pamamagitan ng kanyang dugo so kita dito na IGLESIA NG DIOS ang tunay na iglesia. Dito tatawagin ang “other sheep” na nasa panahon natin.

Anong patunay na IGLESIA NG DIOS ito? Ito kasi ang iglesiang inusig ni pablo sa kanyang kabuuan.

Galatians 1:22-23
[22]And was unknown by face unto the churches of Judaea which were in Christ:
[23]But they had heard only, That he which persecuted us in times past now preacheth the faith which once he destroyed.

Kita dito kung sino ang persecuted ni paul: the churches in judea. Ito ay maraming local churches. Anong pangalan nitong maraming local churches in judea na persecuted ni paul?

Galatians 1:13
[13]For ye have heard of my conversation in time past in the Jews’ religion, how that beyond measure I persecuted the church of God, and wasted it:

CHURCH OF GOD PALA ANG PANGALAN NG MGA CHURCHES IN JUDEA NA PERSECUTED NI PAUL. Singular church na tumutukoy sa maraming local churches meaning, ito ang official name ng iglesia dahil ipinangalan ito sa kabuuan ng mga local churches.

So kita dito, na church of god ang tunay na pangalan ng iglesia so ayon sa gawa 20:28 e dapat e iglesia ng dios ang binili ni hesus sa pamamagitan ng kanyang dugo.

Anong palatandaan kung sino ito?
Sila ay nasa mga isla sa silangan.

Isaiah 24:14-15
[14]They shall lift up their voice, they shall sing for the majesty of the LORD, they shall cry aloud from the sea.
[15]Wherefore glorify ye the LORD in the east, even the name of the LORD God of Israel in the isles of the sea.

Ano pa?

Malachi 1:11
[11]For from the EAST even unto the WEST my name shall be great among the Gentiles; and in every place incense shall be offered unto my name, and a pure offering: for my name shall be great among the heathen, saith the LORD of hosts.

Ang iglesiang ito ay maguumpisa sa east papuntang west. So kanino natupad ito?

Aling iglesia ang tinatawag na church of god, maguumpisa ito sa mga isla sa east at pagkatapos lumaganap sa west?

Walang iba na kinatuparan dito sa east na me church of god na nagumpisa sa mga isla sa east na lumaganap papuntang west maliban sa grupo ni bro eli.

Kami ay mcgi pero ang tunay naming pangalan ay church of god…

JESUS IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD IN JOHN 1:18

The rendering of John 1:18 in KJV is “the only begotten son” or monogenes huios in greek. We believe there is a better and more correct rendering: the only begotten god or monogenes theos in greek.

μονογενὴς Θεὸς or monogenes theos–the only begotten god.

A site has this to say:

EARLY MSS ATTEST ITS VERACITY

μονογενὴς Θεὸς is represented in a great number of the earliest MSS, is prominent in the MSS that are considered to contain accurate texts, and is most probably what John actually wrote.

The following manuscripts support theos. This list conflates the evidence of those MSS which have an article (ho) and those without it (the latter is the text of Nestle-Aland):

  • Greek witnesses
    • Papyrus 66 [Papyrus Bodmer II] A.D. c. 200 (Martin), A.D. 100-150 (Hunger)
    • Papyrus 75 (A.D. 175-225)
    • Codex א – Sinaiticus (c. 330–360)
    • Codex B – Vaticanus (c. 325–350)
    • Codex C* – Eprhraemi Rescriptus (5th C.)
    • Apostolic Constitutions (A.D. 375 -380)
    • Codex L – Regius (A.D 701-800)
  • non-Greek witnesses
    • Bohairic Coptic [Codex Bodmer III] (A.D. 300)
    • Diatessaron (“Out of Four”) of Titan the Syrian [Arabic version] (c. 160-175)
    • Syriac Peshitta (A.D 150)
    • Adysh manuscript (A.D 897)-Gregordian-Georgian/Iberian version
    • Opiza manuscript (A.D 913)
    • Tbet’ manuscript (A.D 995)
  • Late Greek
    • Minuscule 423 (A.D 1556)

Irenaeus’ (A.D. 130-202) ‘unigenitus deus’ in his Against Heresies IV, 20, 11 is probably a John 1:18 quotation from an Old Latin MSS.

The Coptic versions is one of the earliest versions of the NT where huios is completely absent.

Wallace again:

At the risk of sounding repetitive, θεός shows up again outside the Alexandrian tradition (e.g., early Latin Fathers in the Gospels are Western witnesses)76 with relatively strong textual weight (per Ehrman’s argument). (ibid.)

In sum, externally, both readings enjoy wide geographical distribution, even though υἱός is relatively stronger in non-Alexandrian forms of text. Both readings co-existed in the second century, although weightier MSS support θεός. As a whole, then, I believe θεός is more probable due to the quality, antiquity, and transmissional history of the witnesses listed above. (ibid.)

In retrospect, I conclude that μονογενὴς θεός is the best reading given all the evidence we have internally and externally. As a result, it is highly probable that the text of John 1.18 calls Jesus θεός. (ibid.)

4) EASTERN AND WESTERN CHURCH FATHERS AND HERETICS QUOTED IT

Irenaeus, Clement ,Eusebius, Basil, Cyril, and Origen, Didymus, Epiphanius, Eusebius, Gregory-Nyssa, Heracleon, Hilary, Jerome, Origen, Ps-Ignatius, Ptolemy, Serapion, Synesius, Tatian, Theodotus, Valentinius, and Arius.

5) FITS THE CONTEXT OF THE PROLOGUE/ JOHANNINE GOSPEL

John 1:1 – pros ton theon / theos

John 1:1 – pros to theon

John 1:14 – monogenes

John 1:18 – monogenes / theos

John 20:28 – theos

You’ll notice how coherent the prologue is when Θεὸς is the reading.This is an internal argument for the authenticity of the reading Θεὸς.

Stylistically, θεός closes the inclusio begun in 1.1c; also possibly providing a parallel with 20.28 (the Gospel as a whole). (ibid.)


NOTES

There are two possible ways to translate the Greek phrase μονογενὴς Θεὸς:

adjective + substantive = only begotten God

substantive + substantive = only begotten , who is God or God only begotten

The μονογενὴς is best translated as ‘only-begotten’ (NKJV, NASB) cohering with the scope of parent-to-offspring relationship in which the word is used (cf: John 1:18, 1 John 4:9). To beget means to make someone have one’s nature. Thus, the word μονογενὴς encapsulates the idea of ‘only child’ as its primary semantic locus.

***

Now that we see that there are two possible rendering of john 1:18, it could be the only begotten son or the only begotten god, what prevents us from believing the latter instead?

None, bec biblically it confirms by other verses that indeed jesus is god such as:

John 1:1,14
[1]In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[14]And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Much so, Jesus had preexistence:

John 6:38
[38]For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

The one speaking on earth has come from heaven, therefore before taking on human form, he was already a talking entity in heaven as much as he is the same entity talking on earth. It was not speaking of his human form as this came from Mary’s womb but rather his spirit part that came from heaven.

John 1:1-2
[1]In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
[2]The same was in the beginning with God.

This is a manifestation of preexistence which confirms that indeed jesus is god. Preexistence in the sense that, he was a living entity in heaven as much as he is the same entity talking on earth and having come from heaven, then the one talking is not the human form. Logically its the “word” or god inside the human host.

John 1:1,14
[1]In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Much so, the son was a creator thus validates his being a preexisting god–or his being monogenes theos. Lets read:

Heb 1:8-10

Unto the son he saith…thou o lord in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth and the heavens are the works of your hands.

Therefore, having earliest manuscripts that renders John 1:18 as the only begotten god then it cannot be wrong to believe in it much so as it is supported by context. Therefore the only begotten god cannot be wrong.

There is various rendering of Acts 20:28 and two of such are the church of god and the other is, the church of christ but why did the Iglesia ni Cristo of Manalo prefer the latter and we cannot with John 1:18?

It has been a contextual fact that jesus is god therefore to choose begotten god is appropriate. But granting that it lacks biblical support, still John 1:18’s begotten god by itself impose an evidence that jesus is god given the church’s preference of it as the correct rendition.

1 Timothy 3:15
[15]But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

It could be begotten son. It could be begotten god. For us, we choose begotten god and for that, to us jesus is a begotten god, much so that context of preexistence is supportive of this fact.

Kostenberger and Swain recently concluded, “With the acquisition of P66 and P75, both of which read monogenēs theos, the preponderance of the evidence now leans in the direction of the latter reading [monogenēs theos].”64

IS FELIX MANALO THE RAVENOUS BIRD FROM THE EAST?

It has been a lingering concept amongst the INC that Felix Manalo is the fulfillment of many prophecies in the bible and one of such is about the ravenous bird from the east. They quote this verse:

Isaiah 46:10-13
[10]Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:
[11]Calling a ravenous bird from the east, the man that executeth my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken it, I will also bring it to pass; I have purposed it, I will also do it.
[12]Hearken unto me, ye stouthearted, that are far from righteousness:
[13]I bring near my righteousness; it shall not be far off, and my salvation shall not tarry: and I will place salvation in Zion for Israel my glory.

The reason they believed this to be so is bec of scholarly testament from one of the bible translators as it say:

“… Again, kedem is used in a strictly geographical sense to describe a spot or country immediately before another in an easterly direction; hence it occurs in such passages as Gen. ii:8, 11:24, xi:2, xiii.11, xxv:6 and hence the subsequent application of the term, as a proper name (Gen. xxv. 6, eastward, unto the land of kedem), to the lands lying immediately eastward of Palestine, viz. Arabia, Mesopotamia, andBabylonia; on the other hand mizrach is used of the far east with a less definite signification (Is. Xli:2, 25, xliii, 5, xlvi, 11).”[William Smith, LL. D., Smith Bible Dictionary. (N.J.: Fleming A. Ravell, 1976, p. 153.]

So they were saying, the hebrew word used was mizrach and by adopting smith’s commentary, they have derived from it the term far east to have been denoted in Isaiah 46:11, but how reliable is the commentary?

Look at the commentary. It admitted that far east has less definite signification, meaning, it is not a certain derivative but on a less degree, therefore, its not certain.

Or if ever it was, no evidence whatsoever was produced to verify its certainty. Bec in matters of evidence, strongs numbers published close to 1890 has no mention of far east but simply east as it say:

Hebrew: מזרח
Transliteration: mizrâch
Pronunciation: miz-rawkh’
Definition: From H2224; {sunrise} that {is} the east: – east ({side} {-ward}) (sun-) rising (of the sun).

Therefore, nothing is certain to have far east as a contextual fact, bec what if it was simply, east? So in what certain note can we derive far east to have been the correct term used?

None so far.

Whereas in context, it is clearly established who this ravenous bird is. Firstly, we could assess that the ravenous bird spoken of has this functional necessity: he would execute god’s counsel. What does it mean by counsel?

Jeremiah 23:22
[22]But if they had stood in my counsel, and had caused my people to hear my words, then they should have turned them from their evil way, and from the evil of their doings.

Counsel simply means the words of god that causes sinners to repent, meaning, these are words of salvation. As much so as stated by god, that the ravenous bird must execute god’s counsel.

Counsel in hebrew:

Hebrew: עצה
Transliteration: ‛êtsâh
Pronunciation: ay-tsaw’
Definition: From H3289; advice; by implication plan; also prudence: – {advice} {advisement} counsel ({[-lor]}) purpose.

So on factual reality, it could be counsel or it could merely be a plan. So which counsel or plan are these?

Clearly, the context emphasize that this counsel or plan were on these specifics:

13]I bring near my righteousness; it shall not be far off, and my salvation shall not tarry: and I will place salvation in Zion for Israel my glory.

The counsel or plan of god was for zion (or jerusalem) to have salvation in its midst. This counsel or plan must be executed by the ravenous bird.

The question is, who fulfilled this reality? Who would establish salvation in jerusalem?

It cannot be felix manalo as he never preached in jerusalem. It is jesus christ.

Luke 1:67-79
[67]And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying,
[68]Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,
[69]And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David;
[70]As he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
[71]That we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us;
[72]To perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant;
[73]The oath which he sware to our father Abraham,
[74]That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve him without fear,
[75]In holiness and righteousness before him, all the days of our life.
[76]And thou, child, shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare his ways;
[77]To give knowledge of salvation unto his people by the remission of their sins,
[78]Through the tender mercy of our God; whereby the dayspring from on high hath visited us,
[79]To give light to them that sit in darkness and in the shadow of death, to guide our feet into the way of peace.

Matthew 1:21
[21]And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

How could have felix manalo established salvation in jerusalem when he had never preached in jerusalem?

He never did. Even if his teachings through INC would be propagated in jerusalem, still, these are not his own teachings but its credit is to jesus christ as it say:

Colossians 2:8
[8]Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.

Belief is accounted on christ and not on felix manalo, therefore christ must have been the preacher, the recipient of our belief.

John 14:1
[1]Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me.

John 3:18
[18]He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

1 Peter 2:25
[25]For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.

Therefore, the one who established salvation in jerusalem is christ being the preacher in all generation:

Ephesians 3:21
[21]Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.

In context he is appropriate to be referred to as the ravenous bird from the east and not felix manalo.

How come?
The ravenous bird established salvation in jerusalem whereas Manalo did not.

Lastly, it say the ravenous bird came from a far country. Country in hebrew is eretz which means land, so its rather a far land possibly within israel wherein the east star of jesus was seen therefore logically, jesus came from a far land in the east of jerusalem. It doesnt mean a country outside israel, bec it could be within its borders.

I had a debate regarding this and this is my comment:

My stand is formidable. Zion cannot be the church bec even if it say in romans, i lay in sion a stumbling rock of offense, neither was it emphatic on the church bec nothing confirmed it as the church, bec it could be literal jerusalem wherein jesus as the rock was lain, so nothing is confirmatory in that essence,

And yes, it said, far country, but if we consult hebrew it could also mean A FAR LAND, as confirmatory of jesus journey from bethlehem to nazareth wherein his east star was seen, therefore he came from the east after coming from bethlehem particularly a far land within israel.

And mizrach is less definite in terms of far east as smith commentary stated but is definite to mean east as synonymous to kedem, as stated by strongs numbers dictionary.

So nothing of a far east is ever been certain and definite, so it scrap your sole basis to mean philippines and manalo…

Why do i think it is jesus referred to as the ravenous bird?
Bec the ravenous bird establish salvation in zion, which i believe is the literal jerusalem…

And if ever it speaks of the church, still it was jesus who established salvation being the author of salvation as paul claimed

Hebrews 12:2
[2]Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.

Moreover, another comment:
REBUTTAL

My opponent tries to justify manalo as the ravenous bird by trying to discredit jesus. He quoted a verse which says:

TO THE LAW AND TESTIMONY, IF HE DONT SPEAK ACCORDING TO THIS WORD, THEN ITS BEC THERE IS NO LIGHT IN HIM.

He desperately tries to imply that for a servant of god to have light he must have spoken about generally all of the law and testimony, thus inclusive of the law of moses, but is that really so?

Jesus abrogated the law as it say in luke 16:16 THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS WERE UNTIL JOHN,

Therefore, the law and the testimony spoken of were speaking about the integral bible excluding what is abrogated as it say:

2 Timothy 3:16-17
[16]All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
[17]That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Bec if it speaks about preaching the whole OT testimonies as specific of its integral form, then how could that be possible,

Nowhere did jesus or the apostles have spoken about the ravenous bird, or the other prophecies whether speaking about jesus or not, therefore, as by my opponent’s interpretation then they have no light.

Ill quote a verse and see for yourself if this has been preached by jesus:

Daniel 2:31-37
[31]Thou, O king, sawest, and behold a great image. This great image, whose brightness was excellent, stood before thee; and the form thereof was terrible.
[32]This image’s head was of fine gold, his breast and his arms of silver, his belly and his thighs of brass,
[33]His legs of iron, his feet part of iron and part of clay.
[34]Thou sawest till that a stone was cut out without hands, which smote the image upon his feet that were of iron and clay, and brake them to pieces.
[35]Then was the iron, the clay, the brass, the silver, and the gold, broken to pieces together, and became like the chaff of the summer threshingfloors; and the wind carried them away, that no place was found for them: and the stone that smote the image became a great mountain, and filled the whole earth.
[36]This is the dream; and we will tell the interpretation thereof before the king.
[37]Thou, O king, art a king of kings: for the God of heaven hath given thee a kingdom, power, and strength, and glory.

Jesus never preached this so does he have light when this is also a testimony as said: if they speak not according to this word then they have no light in them?
Do you think you have interpreted this correctly?
NOTHING IS SAID ABOUT TESTIFYING ABOUT ONESELF FROM THE TESTIMONY AND LAW…
If it is not about preaching generally all specific testimonies then how would you account for jesus to speak specifically everything about all prophecies on him?

If you still insist, where in the testimonies did it account for felix manalo as the ravenous bird, when nothing in the testimony have it spoken anything about him?
Let me repost your basis:

THE LAW AND TESTIMONY, IF THEY SPEAK NOT ACCORDING TO THIS WORD, ITS BEC THEY HAVE NO LIGHT IN THEM…

So where in the testimony, firstly, manalo as the ravenous bird,
Secondly, zion as the church of god?

Bec what the testimony said was: the ravenous bird must establish salvation in zion. Therefore, for you to prove anything, you must prove first that zion speaks certainly of any other city than literal jerusalem.

If nothing is certain, then you know, other possibilities could point to other personalities as cyrus and jesus christ, which bro eli has tried to relay…

Lastly,

CONCLUSION

As far as the debate goes, clearly nothing has been placed in a rather certain stand but only the testimony which says, the ravenous bird will establish salvation in zion. It therefore bespeaks the rather weak argument of my opponent to have used ROM 9:33 “I LAY IN ZION A STUMBLINGSTONE AND ROCK OF OFFENSE” to express that zion is the church when nowhere in it, even the slightest notion, is emphatic of a church. It is rather on the notion that zion is jerusalem that is overwhelming and outstanding.

Nothing is certain in my opponent’s argument thus he failed to prove his stand quite credibly.

Therefore if nothing is certain then it open possibilities for other personalities such as cyrus and jesus christ as what bro eli has tried to relay and misunderstood as contradiction when he was just presenting mere possibilities.

On second point, the star of jesus was seen in the east as indicator to where he is. If the east star is seen in the east, how could they have located jesus if he was in the south or north through the star? Logically, it could only be possible if he was in the east.

Im not saying, bethlehem is in the east, what im saying was, after coming from bethlehem jesus went east before he went home to nazareth. Still, he came from the east.

This is the core of the argument he lack the adequacy to ever fortify: zion is the church. Nothing of a certain proof validated his argument thus it stands zion is jerusalem which if validated would rejects the concept that manalo is the ravenous bird having not preached in jerusalem,

Zion is jerusalem…

Micah 4:2

[2]And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.

Having that as premise, then zion is clearly jerusalem whereas nowhere did it directly referred to a church, much so a church the pasugo claimed was not a member of the 1st century church yet claiming rom 16:16, the early church to be referring to them. Ridiculous but that is not the point.

So in matters of contradiction and curse, have our group, MCGI, preached otherwise than the apostles to have merit a curse?

No. We simply were giving possibilities that it could be cyrus or jesus beside the fact that the apostles never tackled a single bit about the ravenous bird.

So are we cursed?

Conclusion: Zion could only refer to jerusalem and felix having not preached there rejects him as being the ravenous bird from the east.