THE FAULTY JOHN 17:3 ARGUMENT

They say, there is one god in the sense of being the one true god. In short, they are saying, there is only one true god in a general scope. In this short blog, we will elucidate the matter on how usage of John 17:3 to purport a one true god concept is faulty.

John 17:3
[3]And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

To say that there is one true god must be in the scope of being true god of the whole universe, yet clearly in the verse, nothing to that extent was ever insinuated, so how possibly it is that it construe an only true god of the whole universe?

None so far. So where is the proof that there is one true god of the whole universe?

None in John 17:3. And being in that status, it is not clear what it means by only true god thus in essence an ambiguous statement. It could be explained in many other ways.

It could be:

1. The only true god of the whole universe.

2. The only true god who is credited as the only creator.

3. The only true god in heaven bec the other true god is on earth.

Having no clarificatory aspect, it could not be considered in a rather certain way, that there is one true god in the general scope–or one true god of the whole universe for that matter– bec it could mean other things.

With this ambiguity, we cannot say that John 17:3 is a rather certain verse to prove one true god in the general scope. Nothing is said of him as the only true god of the whole universe, so where is he the only true god of? It didnt say anything bec it could mean otherwise and for us, MCGI, we prefer possibility #3 seeing how Jesus is too, the true god in 1 John 5:20.

In like manner when saying:

The only true policeman

Does it convey a complete thought?

Obviously not.

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INC VS MCGI: IS THERE ONLY ONE GOD?

Here are the verses used by Iglesia ni Cristo to prove the single god concept:

    John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. 

    Out of context. I’ll show later.

    1 Corinthians 8:6

    [6]But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

    Contextually, it means there is only one god from whom originated all things. It doesn’t mean there is one god in general terms. It means, Among the gods there is one among them that is the source of all things. Why did i say so? Bec Jesus is the true god also. Refer to the answer below.

    1 Timothy 2:5

    [5]For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

    It means, there is one god to whom Jesus mediates the people with. Meaning, among the many gods, there is one among them to whom jesus mediates the people with. Why is it that way? Bec Jesus is likewise god. Refer to my answer below.

    Deuteronomy 4:39

    [39]Know therefore this day, and consider it in thine heart, that the LORD he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else.

    True. God Almighty is the god of heaven and earth but he is not the only one as Jesus is likewise God. Refer to my answer below. Thus when he said: there is none else, he meant it as this:

    that the LORD he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else (for Israel)
    How come? Logically bec Jesus is likewise god.

    It follows likewise with the other verses as:

    Isaiah 45:21

    [21]Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me (for Israel) a just God and a Saviour; there is god e beside me (for Israel).

    Isaiah 44:8

    [8]Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me (for Israel)? yea, there is no God; I know not any (for Israel).

    Isaiah 46:9

    [9]Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me (for Israel).

    Why did i come to that logical approach? Bec God is the only God for Israel but Christians have Jesus as true God therefore in general terms, God almighty is not the only god of heaven and earth.

    Mosaic Israel have one God as it say,

    Hosea 13:4

    [4]Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

    Israel having one god only and Jesus being a true god implies that when god said, i am god there is none else and none like me etc.. Contextually, he meant it as i am god there is none else and none like me for israel. It is the most logical approach. Why? Bec in general terms God is not the only true god. Christianity has Jesus as true God. Refer to my answer below.

    Lastly, Iglesia ni Cristo said, God has no equal as it say,

    Isaiah 46:5-6
    [5]To whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like?

    [6]They lavish gold out of the bag, and weigh silver in the balance, and hire a goldsmith; and he maketh it a god: they fall down, yea, they worship.

    Logically, God has no equal in reference to idols people considered as gods but otherwise, he has an equal, Jesus being true god as it say,

    Philippians 2:5-6

    [5]Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

    [6]Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

    Now, as everything said and done, the only way to destroy INC’s out of context and cherry picked argument, is to prove that Jesus is true god, so as corroboratory evidence for the most logical approach i have used against the INC verses above that allegedly support the single god concept.

    Jesus admitted he is true god, as it say:

    1JOHN5:20 We know that the son is come…this is the true god and eternal life.

    1JOHN1:1-5 THAT ETERNAL LIFE WHICH IS WITH THE FATHER.

    JOHN 14:6 Jesus said unto him, I am the way the truth and the life (eternal)

    The eternal life is not the father but someone with him. Jesus is the eternal life. Being the eternal life therefore he is the true god as the true god is the eternal life.

    this is the true god and eternal life.
    Jesus is the life, in what way?

    As the word of god or as the truth as it say,

    John 6:63

    [63]It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words (the truth) that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life. 

    John 11:25-26

    [25]Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life (eternal) he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: 

    [26]And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? 

    Bec Jesus is the life eternal therefore he is the true god spoken of in 1John5:20 therefore clarifying that the concept there is only one true god is in essence and context is wrong. It is misguided and out of context. When it say, in john17:3 God is the only true god, it did not specify a certain valid and conclusive notion. It did not specify if,

    • God is the only true god of the whole universe 
    • or if he is only the only true god existing in heaven as the other true god, jesus, was on earth?

    Did it say, in John17:3 that God is the only true god of the whole universe? It did not. Therefore, it could mean other else. Having jesus as true god as proven above, it could not be that god almighty is the only true god of the whole universe thus the most logical approach as the only logical option is that John17:3 speaks of God almighty as the only true god remaining in heaven as jesus, the other true god, was on earth. 

    By these, it could only be concluded as the most logical approach, to have the INC’s argument weak if we are to consider integral context.

    Now, for the challenge, I hope you could come up with a stronger argument than mine. If you do, I’ll convert to your religion!

    Thank You!