MYTH: BIBLICAL FLAT EARTH!

Read first the myth. Source could be verified by copying portions of the text and Google it. My response would follow afterwards.

GUARANTEE: no biblical errors!

The Biblical Flat Earth: The Teaching From Scripture

As a Christian, the flat earth begins and ends with Scripture. While the evidence continues to mount, and has, for the flat earth, I must begin by saying, “the Scriptures told you so.”

Just like so many people have been deceived regarding evolution, the big bang, and heliocentrism, so to have many been duped into believing that we are on a spinning ball. The ramifications of these lies have wide sweeping effects upon every sphere of life and society. I would like to begin with the most controversial verse in Isaiah. 

It is he who sits above the circle of the earth, and its inhabitants are like grasshoppers; who stretches out the heavens like a curtain, and spreads them like a tent to dwell in” Is. 40:22

I recall in my apologetic days, that when atheists would make fun of the Bible, they would constantly bring up this verse. The typical Christian response was to point out that the word circle here is, in fact, proving that the earth was a ball. I remembered even then thinking that didn’t seem right to me. We all know what a circle is and it is not a ball. In fact, the Hebrew word used in this verse is “khoog” (pronounced chug). The word literally means, circle, circuit, and compass. In all of these words, none of them conjure up a picture of a ball. Furthermore if the earth were a ball, and God wished to communicate that here, then it would have required using the Hebrew word “dure” (pronounced dur). The Hebrew definition for dure is, a circle, pile, or ball. Isn’t that interesting? If the shape of the earth was intended to be conveyed as a “ball” then the Hebrew word “dure” would have been the word used. It wasn’t. What we were given instead was the Hebrew word “khoog.”

As you can see above, the flat earth depictions are exactly that, a circle. Furthermore, notice that in the verse that man is dwelling in the earth. The Hebrew word here is “yashab” and literally means to “sit down,” and by implication means to dwell, to remain, and to settle. It would be quite difficult to sit down, remain, and settle upon a spinning ball, wouldn’t it?

Another interesting verse for me is when Jesus is taken up to a high mountain by Satan and shown the kingdoms of the world.

Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. – Matthew 5:8

Notice that this mountain was “very high.” In the Greek here, the word for high is “hupselos” and means literally high or lofty. Add to that the Greek word “very” which is “lian” and we now have a very intentional description of this.

If the world is a ball, the higher one goes the less one would be seeing of the earth because the curvature would constantly be falling and you would have to look further and further down, however. If the earth were flat, then the higher you go, the more you see while the horizon stays at eye level. The horizon rises to the eye. It seems to me that Jesus was taken to very high mountain and could literally see all of the kingdoms of the world.

Some may respond with objections to this interpretation suggesting that this particular event is merely speaking symbolically. To that I would ask, what were the kingdoms a symbol of if not of real literal kingdoms? Was Satan a symbol as well? What about Jesus? Was He a symbol too? Obviously that sort of interpretation for this particular verse does not work at all.

Another interesting example from Scripture is found in Joshua 10 where God caused the “sun to stand still.”

“And the sun stood still, and the moon stopped, until the nation took vengeance on their enemies. Is this not written in the Book of Jashar? The sun stopped in the midst of heaven and did not hurry to set for about a whole day.” – Joshua 10:13

If the sun is the center of the universe and the earth is orbiting around it, then for this event to occur, it would have to have been the earth standing still, not the sun, however. If the earth is flat and the sun and moon rotate above us, it would make perfect sense for the sun to stand still in order to prolong the day here.

The Teaching Of Scripture Regarding The Flat Earth:

And upon Elam will I bring the four winds from the four quarters of heaven, and will scatter them toward all those winds; and there shall be no nation whither the outcasts of Elam shall not come. – Jeremiah 49:36 

Also, thou son of man, thus saith the Lord GOD unto the land of Israel; An end, the end is come upon the four corners of the land. – Ezekiel 7:2

The tree grew, and was strong, and the height thereof reached unto heaven, and the sight thereof to the end of all the earth. – Daniel 4:11 

It is he that sitteth upon the circle of the earth, and the inhabitants thereof are as grasshoppers; that stretcheth out the heavens as a curtain, and spreadeth them out as a tent to dwell in. – Isaiah 40:22

Again, the devil taketh him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them. – Matthew 4:8

And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending upon him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth. – Acts 10:11 

I was in the city of Joppa praying: and in a trance I saw a vision, A certain vessel descend, as it had been a great sheet, let down from heaven by four corners; and it came even to me. – Acts 11:5 

And after these things I saw four angels standing on the four corners of the earth, holding the four winds of the earth, that the wind should not blow on the earth, nor on the sea, nor on any tree. – Revelation 7:1 

And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog, and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea. – Revelation 20:8 


The number of verses that teach the earth is a round spinning ball orbiting the sun? 0

Some would argue that these verses were meant to convey the sun from our perspective. I would have to ask: why would the standard of truth and the Sovereign God wish to communicate the truth of the earth He created from OUR perspective? This sort of reasoning is what led to many false teaching regarding the creation account. For them, they start with the presupposition that evolution is true, and then reason that God only communicated the creation account through poetic symbolism and yet the same ones would use the “circle” reference as anything but a symbol.

The Scriptures are the source and standard of truth and would not be if the information that is being communicated is based merely upon man and his “perspective.”

Also, the verses which speak about the “four corners” of the earth only makes sense in respect to the flat earth. If the earth were a ball there wouldn’t be one corner, let alone four. Yes, I recognize that the “four corners” could be merely an “all encompassing” reference, however. It still stands as a mental thorn in the minds of those that wish to believe we are on a spinning ball.

1. CIRCLE OF THE EARTH

It is he who “yashab” (sit down, settle) above the “chug” (circle) of the earth, and its inhabitants are like grasshoppers; who stretches out the heavens like a curtain, and spreads them like a tent to dwell in” Is. 40:22

It don’t conjure any logical thought that it speaks of the earth as 2-dimensional circle or a flat circle. It did not say the earth is a circle, so to make it flat. It only suggests that earth has a chug or a circle. In like manner in saying that a sphere has a circle as saying, “circle of the sphere”. Does it suggest a sphere is flat?
No!

Therefore circle of the earth doesn’t suggest a flat earth, as circle of the sphere doesnt suggest a sphere (ball) is flat.

A sphere is a ball but it has a circle likewise earth is a ball and yet it has a circle!

It doesnt mean sphere and earth is flat.

Look below, saying circle of the sphere doesn’t make a sphere flat therefore saying, “circle of the earth” must not mean earth is flat.

God settles upon the circle of the earth, bec earth is his footstool.

Isaiah 66:1

[1]Thus saith the LORD, The heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool: where is the house that ye build unto me? and where is the place of my rest?

Obviously, it is literally, god stepping upon the earth which literally he would be resting upon one of its many circles probably, a great circle as described above, the circle of the sphere!

Is it observable that earth has a circle?

Yes! Look at the picture below, you would see a 2-dimensional flat earth, that is as viewed from extraterrestrial viewpoint but in reality, its a ball!

Is not god conveying the message that circle of the earth is either describing it like the great circle of the sphere described in geometry as I presented above or it could be as the flat circle (in the picture below) as the product of viewing the earth from outer space, though flat circle in view but in reality is ball-like? 

Could he not mean circle of the earth is the circle you see from viewing the earth from outer space?

 Either way, both proves that earth has a circle, the circle from view and the circle of the sphere. It did not specify though if earth is a flat circle or not bec it did not directly say, the earth is a circle, but simply saying, the earth has a circle by saying, “circle of the earth”. Therefore nothing in it, is conclusive to say that the earth is a 2-dimensional circle.

2. JESUS WAS SHOWN ALL KINGDOM OF THE EARTH.

Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. – Matthew 5:8

Notice that this mountain was “very high.” In the Greek here, the word for high is “hupselos” and means literally high or lofty. Add to that the Greek word “very” which is “lian” and we now have a very intentional description of this.

If the world is a ball, the higher one goes the less one would be seeing of the earth because the curvature would constantly be falling and you would have to look further and further down, however. If the earth were flat, then the higher you go, the more you see while the horizon stays at eye level. The horizon rises to the eye. It seems to me that Jesus was taken to very high mountain and could literally see all of the kingdoms of the world.

NO! There is no suggestion that earth is flat. If so, still, jesus cannot see the farthest part of the flat stretch of land, even from his vantage point except though if he has superman vision. The reason satan led him to a high mountain was to test him. Whatever reason satan have to choose an isolate high mountain is irrelevant but his attempt to show jesus the whole earthly kingdom logically, is bec he knew jesus can see the innermost part of all man for it to be possible that he could perceive all kingdom of the earth wherever they are on the globe, as it say, 

John 2:24-25

[24]But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men,

[25]And needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man.

It is by that reality, jesus ability to know the innermost part of all men,  that jesus could see all kingdom of men at whatever point on earth whether it be flat or a globe, though nothing in those categories, flat or globe, was  implied, but what is emphasized was, jesus could see you wherever you are on earth as he knew what is in all man!

The only problem though for you is, it neither confirms or deny the flat earth concept thus nothing in it is decisive to verify the flat earth concept.

3.SUN STOOD STILL

“And the sun stood still, and the moon stopped, until the nation took vengeance on their enemies. Is this not written in the Book of Jashar? The sun stopped in the midst of heaven and did not hurry to set for about a whole day.” – Joshua 10:13
If the sun is the center of the universe and the earth is orbiting around it, then for this event to occur, it would have to have been the earth standing still, not the sun, however. If the earth is flat and the sun and moon rotate above us, it would make perfect sense for the sun to stand still in order to prolong the day here.

Indeed! Sun standing still is possible such as red sea parting was possible. It was a miracle act. It don’t suggest a flat earth though. Nevertheless, your concept of earth as should be the one standing still than the sun bec its the earth that is moving, is biblically immature. Sun standing still was by the literal perception of Joshua, as illusory, it is a natural phenomena that the sun is moving. It was from the perception of Joshua that sun is moving thus he requested it to keep still as it say, 

Joshua 10:12

[12]Then spake Joshua to the LORD in the day when the LORD delivered up the Amorites before the children of Israel, and he said in the sight of Israel, Sun, stand thou still upon Gibeon; and thou, Moon, in the valley of Ajalon.

God himself in his many revelations sometimes don’t exactly describe things in their natural condition such as the circuit of earth in relation to seemingly static sun by using terms like “rising of the sun” “setting down of the sun”. He don’t imply that the sun moves around the earth as implied by sunrise and sunset. In reality, sun dont rise or set or moves around the earth but simply, he used this human terminologies as speaking things, understandable by his human subjects, that is, speaking words in human terms, sunrise or sunset.

Psalms 113:3

[3]From the rising of the sun unto the going down of the same the LORD’S name is to be praised.

So when he say, sun stand still, it was adopting human terminologies. 

At all times god used human terminologies such as the Hebrew terms he used for his old testament. Why cannot he adopt things as “sunrise” and “sun stood still” as part of his truth?

The OP said,

Some would argue that these verses were meant to convey the sun from our perspective. I would have to ask: why would the standard of truth and the Sovereign God wish to communicate the truth of the earth He created from OUR perspective? This sort of reasoning is what led to many false teaching regarding the creation account. For them, they start with the presupposition that evolution is true, and then reason that God only communicated the creation account through poetic symbolism and yet the same ones would use the “circle” reference as anything but a symbol.


God used human terminologies, such as sunrise and sunset, does it suggests a biblical error in terms of science? Is sunrise or sunset scientifically true? Do the sun circles the earth for it to set and rise?
Obviously, god did not intend that as a scientific fact as he never confirms or deny it as a scientifict fact therefore, nobody could accuse god as unscientific, bec he did not confirm it as scientific fact

Hosea 14:9

[9]Who is wise, and he shall understand these things? prudent, and he shall know them? for the ways of the LORD are right, and the just shall walk in them: but the transgressors shall fall therein.

Therefore using human terminologies are right for god. Does that invalidates anything that god declares as natural phenomena such as creation, and symbolisms such as corners of the earth?
No! Bec it was specified if a thing is literal or symbolism, by the principle that, nothing could be added or diminished from whatever he do, and one of such, is for man to validates his belief by inquiry, meaning, to understand gods way, by corroborating it to facts.

Proverbs 20:24-25

[24]Man’s goings are of the LORD; how can a man then understand his (god) own way?

[25]It is a snare to the man who yala (inconsiderately devour) that which is holy, and after vows to make enquiry.

1 Corinthians 11:14

Doth not even nature (science) itself teach you…

Implying, it is a snare for a man to make inconsiderate conclusion from the bible without making inquiry first, if such things are compliant to facts, nature or science, as indeed, laws of nature, is an applicable and integral religious component. Therefore, by this principle, anything that god said if it is compliant to facts then it is the appropriate and intended meaning, such as circle of the earth being compliant to science is therefore literally meant and not a symbolism.
In short, whatever the bible say, if verified by science, is the correct interpretation. That thing therefore is scientific and not a symbolism.
Sunrise, sunset and sun stood still, being unverified as scientific fact, must be understood therefore as mere human perspective god used to convey an understandable circumstances, by way of, adopting human understanding. It is not a biblical error in terms of science as god never confirms it as scientific fact.

4. FOUR CORNERS OF THE EARTH SUGGEST A FLAT EARTH.

And after these things I saw four angels standing on the four “gonia” (angle, corner, quarter) of the earth, holding the four winds of the earth, that the wind should not blow on the earth, nor on the sea, nor on any tree. – Revelation 7:1 

And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog, and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea. – Revelation 20:8 


The question is, Is the globe subdivided into four geometrical angle, corner or quarter?

Yes! The four hemispheres!

Therefore, its possible that god when saying, four corners of the earth he speaks of the four earth hemispheres.

Other possible explanation:

Job 38:13

[13]That it might take hold of the ends of the earth, that the wicked might be shaken out of it?

Jeremiah 10:13

When he uttereth his voice, there is a multitude of waters in the heavens, and he causeth the vapours to ascend from the ends of the earth; he maketh lightnings with rain, and bringeth forth the wind out of his treasures.

The Hebrew words used for ends in the verses above  is shown below:

ENDS OF THE EARTH suggests, an edge, extremity, quarter, corner, uttermost part, coast of the earth! And as suggested by Jeremiah is a place where vapours ascend, logically, the oceans and seas.

Therefore ends of the earth, is likewise, the quarters of the earth, which in application is, likewise, the corners of the earth. So when saying, four corners of the earth, it doesn’t suggest, a flat earth having corners as the OP suggests,

Also, the verses which speak about the “four corners” of the earth only makes sense in respect to the flat earth. If the earth were a ball there wouldn’t be one corner, let alone four. Yes, I recognize that the “four corners” could be merely an “all encompassing” reference, however. It still stands as a mental thorn in the minds of those that wish to believe we are on a spinning ball.

Four corners of the earth, corners or quarters or ends, as possibly similar words in application, which place speaks particularly of an earthly characteristic descriptive of places where vapours ascend. Scientifically, it suggests oceans, thus saying, four corners of the earth literally, it speaks of four oceans of the earth as four corners of the earth.

Is there such a thing?

Possibly, the ends of the earth, as oceans, similar to corners or quarters of the earth suggest therefore that corners or quarters of the earth are oceans, where vapours ascend, thus four corners of the earth are four oceans. Historically, there are four oceans such as Atlantic, pacific, Indian and arctic. These are the possible four corners of the earth.

Though, nothing certain was explained regarding the four corners of the earth, to confirm or deny, nothing likewise confirms that four corners is the attribute of a flat earth as it could be symbolic, for oceans.

Therefore, the bible never confirmed the flat earth concept!

5. EARTH HAS ENDS

The tree grew, and was strong, and the height thereof reached unto heaven, and the sight thereof to the end of all the earth. – Daniel 4:11 


Answered above. Ends of the earth are where vapours come from, logically, bodies of water i.e oceans and seas! Though the tree could be seen from all corners of the earth was bec its a dream, not reality!

By these, logical reasons, rational interpretations, therefore, nothing in the bible is confirmatory as certain statement that is conclusive to say earth is flat!

RICHARD DAWKINS, GOD IS A GOD OF JUSTICE!

​Job 8:2-7

[3]Doth God pervert judgment? or doth the Almighty pervert justice?

Atheists view of god:

What is justice?

“THE QUALITY OF BEING IMPARTIAL IN CONFORMITY TO TRUTH, FACT AND REASON”

How is god a god of justice?

Bec justice is defined as being impartial or fair in conformity to truth, fact and reason, god being a factual being, the supreme authority as a fact, therefore by logical reason and truth, it follows that being in that position as an established lawgiver, the source of what is right or wrong, being almighty, being most high in intellect, knowledge and understanding, the creator of all things, he therefore is unquestionable thus whatever he say, is the law, the truth and just! And being, unquestionable, his words is justice.

Of course, that is if he is factual! Is he?

If he is, common sense dictates that we must be in submission!

Why not?

He is the supreme authority!

Psalms 83:18

[18]That men may know that thou, whose name alone is YHWH, art the “elyon” (the supreme) over all the earth.

Being the supreme, he is the supreme authority, thus everything he say is justice!

Isaiah 14:27
[27]For the LORD of hosts hath purposed, and who shall disannul it? and his hand is stretched out, and who shall turn it back?

Job 40:8-13

[8]Wilt thou also disannul my judgment? wilt thou condemn me, that thou mayest be righteous?

[9]Hast thou an arm like God? 


Common sense tells us that being in that position, the supreme authority, he must be unquestionable bec it is in essence of being the source of truth! We have no right to oppose his prescribed moral conduct,

Bec he is the source of truth! And what is moral or not!

That is justice! Bec justice is impartial compliance to truth, fact and reason and its a fact, that god,is the source of truth, whatever he commands or do, is just and correct, bec he being supreme, follows that his judgments is compulsory the just and right things.

“For the LORD of hosts hath purposed, and who shall disannul it? and his hand is stretched out, and who shall turn it back?”

“Wilt thou also disannul my judgment? wilt thou condemn me, that thou mayest be righteous?”

That as a fact is justice in its truest sense. 

How come?

Bec its the truth! Its the truth that god is the supreme authority who is the source of what is wrong or right!

Deuteronomy 30:15,19

[15]See, I have set before thee this day life and good, and death and evil;

[19]I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:



One thing that dilutes this reality is if god is not real but if he is, then naturally, he is, the source of truth, likewise, moral conduct!

James 4:12-15

[12]There is one lawgiver, who is able to save and to destroy: who art thou that judgest another?

Thus being a fact, god as the source of truth, he must be believed!

The atheist accused god of being bloodthirsty, genocidal malevolent bully!
First of all he is not bloodthirsty, as such, conclusion must be derived from having knowledge of god’s intent, which the atheist can impossibly establish as he cannot see intent. 

Genocidal? Yes!

Malevolent bully?

No! He don’t kill, punish or torment without valid, logical reason! 
Firstly, let us establish god’s intent on imposing harsh measures and punishments during moses time.

Deuteronomy 21:21

[21]And all the men of his city shall stone him with stones, that he die: so shalt thou put evil away from among you; and all Israel shall hear, and fear.

Deuteronomy 23:14

[14]For the LORD thy God walketh in the midst of thy camp, to deliver thee, and to give up thine enemies before thee; therefore shall thy camp be holy: that he see no unclean thing in thee, and turn away from thee.

The reason was, to put evil away from the people, requiring them to be holy,  that the people shall hear, or fear god, implying, complete submission to god, necessarily by these threats. Threats were one of his methods. Its a ward-off method as initial move bound for the ultimate people’s complete and consensual submission through love!

Deuteronomy 6:5

[5]And thou shalt love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might.

All these for one purpose: salvation.

Were god’s laws indeed injustice as claimed by atheists? 

Let us consider some which seem harsh, unjust and violent.

1. KILL WOMEN NON-VIRGINS ON THEIR WEDDING NIGHT.

Logically, death penalty is for harlots, or whores thus they must be killed, much so, after attempting marriage, and discovered a harlot. God didnt want fornication among his people thus the penalty. 

Genesis 38:24

[24]And it came to pass about three months after, that it was told Judah, saying, Tamar thy daughter in law hath played the harlot; and also, behold, she is with child by whoredom. And Judah said, Bring her forth, and let her be burnt.

Genesis 49:10

[10]The sceptre (of correction) shall not depart from Judah, 


2. KILL RAPE VICTIMS THAT DIDNT SCREAM WHILE BEING RAPED!

Deuteronomy 22:23-24

[23]If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her;

[24]Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour’s wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.

The only excuse not to kill a rape victim for not resisting and screaming is, if there was force used, such as a knife on her life, such that she cannot scream! But without threat, a woman who scream not, must likewise be killed! 

Logical?

Of course! If you like being raped, then youre enjoying it, which is whoredom, permissive and consensual sex, logically speaking, which was prohibitted. Acccdg to these verses, as implied, sex without resistance is whoredom, which is a prohibition.

Deuteronomy 23:17

[17]There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel.

If not, you should resist, through screaming.

Deuteronomy 22:25

[25]But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man “chazaq” (restrain) her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die

As prescribed, if there was force or restraint used i.e knife on the throat etc… such that you cannot resist or scream, rape victims are not to be killed, but without any, rape victims should scream or else die! Bec they become whores permitting consensual sex, while being married, as logically implied.

3. RAPE VICTIMS SHOULD MARRY THEIR RAPISTS!

Deuteronomy 22:28-29

[28]If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;

[29]Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.

Its by the principle of “arranged marriage” which was norms in those days such as when god arranged Isaac’s marriage to Rebecca, in like manner that rape victims should marry their rapists. Its gods prerogative to impose that as law for the sole reason that its his will.

Is it logical?

Yes! Submission to supreme authority is justice!

Why?

This to teach them to be faithful, in whatever god requires for them as proof of sincere love for god. A learning process as training ground for sincere submission to god.

Deuteronomy 4:10

[10]Specially the day that thou stoodest before the LORD thy God in Horeb, when the LORD said unto me, Gather me the people together, and I will make them hear my words, that they may learn to fear me all the days that they shall live upon the earth, and that they may teach their children.

4. GENOCIDE OF A WHOLE VILLAGE.

Joshua 6:17-21

[17]And the city shall be accursed, even it, and all that are therein, to the LORD: only Rahab the harlot shall live, she and all that are with her in the house, because she hid the messengers that we sent.

[18]And ye, in any wise keep yourselves from the accursed thing, lest ye make yourselves accursed, when ye take of the accursed thing, and make the camp of Israel a curse, and trouble it.

[19]But all the silver, and gold, and vessels of brass and iron, are consecrated unto the LORD: they shall come into the treasury of the LORD.

[20]So the people shouted when the priests blew with the trumpets: and it came to pass, when the people heard the sound of the trumpet, and the people shouted with a great shout, that the wall fell down flat, so that the people went up into the city, every man straight before him, and they took the city.

[21]And they utterly destroyed all that was in the city, both man and woman, young and old, and ox, and sheep, and ass, with the edge of the sword.

5. KILL ALL MALE CAPTIVES.

Deuteronomy 20:10-14

[10]When thou comest nigh unto a city to fight against it, then proclaim peace unto it.

[11]And it shall be, if it make thee answer of peace, and open unto thee, then it shall be, that all the people that is found therein shall be tributaries unto thee, and they shall serve thee.

[12]And if it will make no peace with thee, but will make war against thee, then thou shalt besiege it:

[13]And when the LORD thy God hath delivered it into thine hands, thou shalt smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

[14]But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.

These examples would ultimately be concluded as injustice from an atheistic view. God can do genocide of babies, helpless as they are, the weak, sick, lame, women and old etc… He is an authoritarian ruler that must be compulsory obeyed through his “considerate” directives and guidance if not you would merit penalties. He could arrange marriages out of peoples consent, he could do anything he likes…

Isaiah 46:10

My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:

He could do all he wants, and yet he is not bloodthirsty as killing was for a purpose you, Richard Dawkins do not know. Your foolish babblings are just product of limited comprehension, like a chicken questioning why humans eat chicken, thus calling humans as sadomasochistic, chicken-killer farts, bec the chicken cannot comprehend why humans kill chickens.

God dont kill wicked people bec it is a pleasure but bec it is a necessity.

Ezekiel 18:23

[23]Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: and not that he should return from his ways, and live?

Why is it necessary for god to kill, such as, killing through calamities, earthquake, permitting certain people to kill..etc?

Deuteronomy 32:39

[39]See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand.

Why?

Its his natural role! Likewise as corroborated by the law of nature! Inherent for any supreme authority! Bec he is the source of what is good and evil!

Its logical!

What law of nature?

According to the law of nature, a specific phenomena has always a causal source. In the case of god, proven foreknowledge and precognition as a phenomena, as sanctioned by the law of nature, should have a causal source which in these cases, god claimed these foreknowledge and precognition elements as his, thus through its validation, rationally points to god as causal source thereby a testament of the veracity of his words as standard moral code, where god as the taker of life, as he claimed is indeed his prerogative.

So as corroborated by the law of nature!

So is god sadomasochistic, megalomaniacal, vindictive, unforgiving, genocidal, malevolent bully?

No! As clearly stated:

Ezekiel 18:23

[23]Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: and not that he should return from his ways, and live?

Megalomaniacal?

He is the supreme! Are there others? None, therefore? He is the law. 

Vindictive?

Punishments are necessary. To kill is necessary. 

How come?

Its god’s way!

Bully?

No! He is justice. 

Job 9:22-23

[22]This is one thing, therefore I said it, He destroyeth the perfect and the wicked.

[23]If the scourge slay suddenly, he will laugh at the trial of the innocent.

God laugh when tormenting the innocent?

Yes! He delights on their positive and upright responses.

Proverbs 11:20

[20]They that are of a froward heart are abomination to the LORD: but such as are upright in their way are his delight.

God destroys both wicked and righteous?

Yes! He kills the righteous to spare them from future torments, these are the ones guaranteed of salvation, that dont need to be tested by torments anymore.

Isaiah 57:1

[1]The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth it to heart: and merciful men are taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil to come.

Psalms 116:15
[15]Precious in the sight of the LORD is the death of his saints.


Why are wicked people killed?

Bec these have no more chance for salvation, as implied, god wants all men to be saved, thus by that principle, he spare those that have chances to be saved and kill the hopeless.

1 Timothy 2:3-4

[3]For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;

[4]Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.


Bully?

To torment hopeless wicked people to death?

Nah!

Racist?

No! He wants all men to be saved.

Misogynistic?

No! He exalts righteous women!

Proverbs 31:10

[10]Who can find a virtuous woman? for her price is far above rubies.

Homophobic?

No! He saves righteous gays!

Acts 10:34-35

[34]Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons (race or gender)

[35]But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.


Lastly,

Natural law dictates our moral conduct as it say,

By virtue of the natural law, which determines, morality as essential human integrity, by way of, reasoning and assessment, it is therefore binding and ethical, by the fact, that god is real, the source of morality, the supreme authority, that whatever god therefore ordained as law and moral conduct is justice, thus being a reality as guaranteed by the law of nature I earlier used, it therefore remains a superior ethical guideline,by way of it such that everything god requires as moral conduct is an essential substance of belief as necessary consequence of logic and reason required by natural law, provided it is at the aspect of factual reality, if he as supreme authority, is real.

By virtue of the law of nature, a supreme authority who is the source of truth, must be the standard source of moral conduct, bec if not, who is?

Richard Dawkins? 

Is there empirical proof that Richard Dawkins is the standard source of moral conduct?

None!

How about god?

There is! His mere existence as testament of his being the source of moral conduct, justice and truth is verified by the factuality of his foreknowledge and precognition as proven in empirical manner! testifies the veracity of his words,

Therefore, as testimony of his being the “supreme authority”! And being that, he is the law! 

“THE SUPREME LAW”

AND BEING THAT, HIS WORDS AND DEEDS ARE ABSOLUTELY JUSTICE!

Here is proof that god is real: click here!


NOSTRADAMUS, MUHAMMAD AND THE PLATFORM OF VALID SCIENTIFIC AND HISTORICAL PREDICTION ❄

I have presented valid evidence to verify the reality of god, through biblical references that are supernatural in nature such as foreknowledge (i.e predictions) validated by historical fulfillment and likewise advance knowledge in science. These speaks of an advance mind. Obviously, these as supernatural are factual and tangible evidences that validates the existence of god.

Nevertheless, atheists are discrediting the factuality of this aspect by saying, “fulfilled predictions were likewise evident even outside the bible” thus allegedly diluting the biblical predictions to be mere weak evidence.

These extra-biblical fulfilled predictions and advance knowledge in science were credited to such people as Nostradamus and Muhammad.

Here is some info I gathered about Nostradamus:

From Doctor to Seer

First, let’s examine Nostradamus’ life. Michel De Notredame—or Nostredame—was born in southern France in 1503 to Jewish parents, who later converted to Catholicism. Europe had been undergoing the Renaissance. This was the time that produced Galileo, Copernicus, Michelangelo, Christopher Columbus and Leonardo da Vinci.

Son of a merchant and grandson of scholars, Nostradamus grew up in an environment of learning. As a young boy, he studied classical languages, astrology and possibly the occult. At 14, he left home to study in Avignon, an ecclesiastical and academic center in southern France. Later, he studied medicine at the prestigious University of Montpellier.

He became a physician. Early on, he traveled throughout France, caring for victims of the infamous Bubonic Plague, and gained a reputation as one who healed patients by innovative, but simple, methods. Gravely ill people recovered, and then so did entire towns and villages. He became a celebrated figure in southern France.

In time, he returned to Montpellier for further study, eventually obtaining a medical doctorate. He married into a wealthy family and settled into the comfortable life of a doctor.

Soon after, the plague hit, killing his wife and two children. Unable to save his own family, his credibility was questioned. Compounding his troubles, a simple remark about a statue led to charges of heresy against the Catholic church. Summoned to stand trial, he chose to flee instead—and spent the next several years traveling in southern Europe. He eventually returned to France in 1544, re-established his practice, remarried and had six children.

A practicing Catholic, Nostradamus became heavily involved in astrology and the occult. He would sit for hours, deep into the night, meditating in a trance before a bowl of water.

Here is his description of this strange ritual: “Sitting alone at night in secret study; it [the bowl of water] is placed on the brass tripod. A slight flame comes out of the emptiness…The wand in the hand is placed in the middle of the tripod’s legs. With water he sprinkles both the hem of his garment and his foot [all of this is speaking about himself]. A voice, fear; he trembles in his robes. Divine splendor; the God sits nearby” (The Prophecies of Nostradamus, book I, verses 1-2, emphasis ours).

During these sessions, Nostradamus would have visions. After returning to his senses, he would record them. He began including them in his Almanacs. The first was published in 1550. These contained predictions for every month of the year. His Almanacs were so popular he produced them annually for the rest of his life.

Nostradamus’ fame grew. His services were now sought by the wealthy and powerful. In 1555, he began publishing a monumental project, a 10-part series of predictions called The True Centuries (Les Vrayes Centuries). Each consisted of 100 quatrains (four lines of rhyming verse) written in Latin, French, Greek, Italian and other languages—but in riddles difficult to understand so as to protect himself from accusations of witchcraft.

Nostradamus eventually attracted the attention of Catherine de Médicis, the French queen. She was so impressed she had him produce horoscopes for the royal family’s children. Later, he was appointed royal court physician.

Nostradamus died in 1566, allegedly stating the day before his death that he would live just one more day.

Growing Legend

After his death, the legend grew. Followers claimed he had predicted the death of King Henry II of France—and he was said to have predicted that a young monk Felice Peretti would become pope by addressing him as “Your Holiness.” Peretti did become Pope Sixtus V.

So great was Nostradamus’ influence that in the period following the bombing of the World Trade Center, his name was one of the top Google search terms.

People have always wanted to know what the future holds. They have also always consulted with soothsayers, fortune-tellers, clairvoyants, palm readers, so-called prophecy experts, prophetic texts—alongside the Bible—to learn it.

With world troubles multiplying, there is an explosion of interest in prophecy. Everyone wants to know what is coming. Books on prophecy are often instant bestsellers. Remember, Nostradamus is regarded by many as a prophet.

It is widely acknowledged that many of Nostradamus’ prophecies failed. One author outlined five:

(1) Venice would have great power and world influence by 1792. False.

(2) The Catholic clergy would fall in 1609. False.

(3) Persecution would arise against the Catholic church, also in 1792. False.

(4) Astrologers would be persecuted in 1607. False.

(5) And China would subdue the northern part of the world by 1700. False.

But other predictions never came true:

(1) The Bourbon line of kings would be restored to the French throne.

(2) French king Charles IX would live to 90—he died at 24.

(3) A dramatic reduction in world population in the 18th century would occur due to famine and disease. Instead, population exploded during the 18th-century Industrial Revolution.

These events clearly did not happen. Based on number and size of failures, Nostradamus is a particularly poor prophet. Among false prophets, he falls into extra false.

Moreover, Nostradamus immersion to occults, he has indulgence with someone he called, “the divine is seated near!” as illustrated below. Divine or divinity speaks of entities called god, thus Nostradamus was associated with a divine entity, which possibly, was the source of his predictions, a god!

Having that, we could derive from it these information:

1. Nostradamus has many fulfilled prediction!

2. He has a divine entity as affiliation, named lamblichus. Divine suggests god, thus he was associated to a god.



Does that weakens the reality that fulfilled predictions in the bible were proof of god’s existence bec other than it, some have fulfilled predictions, too?



NO! it corroborates it more!

how come?

BEC ALL FULFILLED PREDICTION EITHER FROM THE BIBLE OR NOT WERE BY GOD AS THE BIBLE CLAIMED!

Before the phenomena of fulfilled predictions, the bible foreknown this reality already as it testifies beforehand, how god has ordained the standard operating procedure and metaphysics of prophetic phenomena before it became reality and that as an essential factor necessitates the involvement of divine intervention as he said, he will give signs and wonders (i.e prediction and scientific facts predating discovery) to false prophets who would convince believers, directly or indirectly, to be in like faith with them, serving another god, which is a possibility, after these signs and wonders would come to pass, or verified as true, historically or scientifically such that it serves as persuasion for people, to serve other gods, which god said was purposed as test for believers if they would succumb to these persuasions or not.

Meaning, god would give signs and wonders to false prophets, as test for believers if they would remain to god or they would opt for another god, as influenced by these signs and wonders (i.e prediction) after these would be fulfilled or come to pass afterwards. This biblical principle is not restrictive to certain people but as a general principle whereas it puts Nostradamus and Muhammad as mere recipient of divine revelation as a platform for god’s testing believers, yet these, recipient of divine revelation and prediction, in nature are false prophets necessarily, as they are anti-biblical, anti-bible-god! as they are directly or indirectly pushing people to serve other gods than exclusively serving the bible god as it say,

Deuteronomy 13:1-4

[1]If there arise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder,(i.e prediction and scientific facts before discovery)

[2]And the sign or the wonder come to pass (i.e fulfilled or discovered) whereof he spake unto thee, saying, (directly or indirectly)  Let us go after other ELOHIM (gods or the supreme god) , which thou hast not known, and let us serve them;

[3]Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams: for the LORD your God proveth (or tests)  you, to know whether ye love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul.

[4]Ye shall walk after the LORD your God, and fear him, and keep his commandments, and obey his voice, and ye shall serve him, and cleave unto him.

Logically, God was saying, he would give signs and wonders to false prophets, such as prediction, as implied, by saying, god uses it as tests. God won’t be testing you through it if it was not him who gave it to the prophet, logically speaking.

It is corroborated by the fact that god is the source of knowledge (i.e knowledge of the future, or of scientific facts before discovery), as it say,

Daniel 2:21 and he changeth the times and the seasons: he removeth kings, and setteth up kings: he giveth wisdom unto the wise, and knowledge to them that teach knowledge…

1 Chronicles 29:12-14

[12]Both riches (i.e knowledge or foreknowledge, wealth, prosperity) and honour come of thee, and thou reignest over all; and in thine hand is power and might; and in thine hand it is to make great, and to give strength unto all.

[13]Now therefore, our God, we thank thee, and praise thy glorious name.

[14]But who am I, and what is my people, that we should be able to offer so willingly after this sort? for all things come of thee, and of thine own have we given thee.

This standard principle, god giving signs and wonders to false prophets, is the launching element, for the advent of prophetic phenomena and the precognition of scientific facts as evident now in our times through the advent of prominent figures as Islamic science  and the nostradamic prediction, which having valid credibility in terms of its signs and wonders, yet as an integral agency lurks in that statistical figure of falsehood, as evidently, these were mere object used as testing elements for believers. In short, they are mere test objects! And not authorized as valid truthcasters!

CONCLUSION:

GOD GAVE SIGNS AND WONDERS, SUCH AS PREDICTION AND SCIENCE TO FALSE PROPHETS THAT WOULD BE FULFILLED OR DISCOVERED.

BY SAYING THAT, GOD IS SAYING, ALL PREDICTION OUTSIDE THE BIBLE COMES FROM HIM.

BY SAYING THAT, GOD STATED THE FACT THAT THERE WOULD BE PROPHETS IN THE FUTURE, OTHER THAN BIBLICAL PROPHETS, THAT WOULD HAVE FULFILLED PREDICTION.

IT HAPPENED!

SKEPTICS, COULD IT BE POSSIBLE TO FORETELL THIS IN CERTAIN MANNER, DURING THOSE PRIMITIVE TIMES, NOT DISREGARDING THE FACT THAT IT WAS NOT A SINGLE PREDICTION BUT ALL OF THE NUMEROUS PREDICTION AND LIKEWISE PRECOGNITION ABOUT SCIENCE WERE ALL VERIFIED AS SPECIFICALLY STATED.

THAT AS A SIGN, IS EVIDENCE, THAT GOD EXISTS!

IT TESTIFIES OF ADVANCE KNOWLEDGE, GOD KNOWING FUTURE EVENTS SUCH AS THE PHENOMENA OF FULFILLED PREDICTION FROM EXTRA-BIBLICAL SOURCES, IS ADVANCE KNOWLEDGE, CONSIDERING THE FACT THAT OTHERS IN THE BIBLE WERE VERIFIED IN LIKE FASHION, TOO!

THEREFORE THESE FULFILLED PREDICTION, AS SIGNS OF AN ADVANCE MIND, WHICH PREDICTION GOD CLAIMED TO BE FROM HIM, TESTIFIES OF A BEING HAVING ADVANCE KNOWLEDGE.

ADVANCE KNOWLEDGE, IS OUR PROOF OF GOD’S EXISTENCE. 

THESE REALITY OF ADVANCE KNOWLEDGE THEREFORE VALIDATES THE TESTIMONY OF GOD, ABOUT HIM GIVING SIGNS AND WONDERS TO FALSE PROPHETS AS TRUE, THEREBY FALSIFYING THESE FIGURES SUCH AS MUHAMMAD AND NOSTRADAMUS AS FALSE TRUTHCASTERS BEING AN OPPOSITION AGAINST BIBLICAL INTEGRITY,

AND STATING THE FACT THAT ALL FULFILLED PREDICTION WERE HIS THUS NECESSARILY, PROVING HIS EXISTENCE BY THE REALITY OF AN ADVANCE MIND!

THIS IS A SIGN OF TRUE PROPHETS:

And when they shall say unto you, Seek unto them that have familiar spirits, and unto wizards that peep, and that mutter: should not a people seek unto their God? For the living to the dead? To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them” (Isa. 8:19-20).

CONCLUSIVELY, TAKING THESE ALL TO ACCOUNT, WE COULD CERTAINLY SAY, GOD IS REAL!