Joe Ventilacion, a Greek scholar and debater of the religious group notorious with its allotted name Iglesia ni Manalo has exuberantly employed the concept that the verbo or word in john 1:1 cannot be derivative of a god as a living entity. It is only an idea having no cognitive abilities but merely a thought, a plan, an inanimate imagination.
But does it have any fraction of reality in it? They quoted a supplemental verse:
1 Peter 1:19-20
But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
Who verily was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,
As you can see, so as they misconstrue context, they said god has foreknown jesus, therefore god knew beforehand that jesus the messiah who he is and how he would be as man, was already determined before his existence thus he was merely a thought, an inanimate figure, an idea.
But wait, was the thing foreknown not existing at hand while his future as redeemer was foreseen?
It has to answer this question by a verse if not, nothing confirmatory would ever be produced from it. In fact, when jesus was the word, he was a cognitive and living entity. He was not a mere idea. And true, god foreknown him as a redeemer, and yet was existing at hand during pre-incarnation time. It doesnt mean to say, he has foreknown an inexistent entity. No. Jesus was existent while god has foreknown his future.
Bec if he was a mere idea, could he have emptied himself so as Philippians 2:6-7 has stated?
Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
MADE HIMSELF OF NO REPUTATION.
If we look it up in greek, it would be: kenoo heauteau kenoo meaning, it is: emptied himself and abased
To make things in right perspective, let us consult context. Firstly, it say, jesus in his pre-incarnation state was in the form of god and equal with god. Next event was, he emptied himself and abased himself. Afterwards he incarnated. So as you can see, before becoming man, he emptied himself and abased himself. So obviously, during the emptyiing of himself he was already the verbo or the word. So the question would be, if the verbo or word is mere idea, how could he have possibly emptied himself and abased himself then seeing how he was inexistent still?
It cannot possibly be, so the only resolution to it is, the verbo or word was not a mere idea but a living entity.
JESUS IS THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD
Malachi 3:10 was saying blessings would come down from windows of heaven. It cannot be literal, right? As we cannot see wealth for example falling down from the sky. It could only be a figure of speech.
Whereas John 6:38 having Jesus said, i came down from heaven is undeniably literal. It is corroborative of John 1:1-2:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The same was in the beginning with God.
To be in the beginning with god denotes preexistence obviously as the word. They might say, that word is in that state of being an idea of god thus it was not an entity.
But how could that be so seeing he is the begotten god:
JOHN 1:18 “THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD” or monogenes theos in the early manuscripts of John like p66, p75, codex sinaiticus, syriac peshitta etc…
The word being the begotten god is obviously an entity as being god is tantamount to being a thinking talking being.
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten God, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
For the begotten god to have declared the father implies that he is a thinking talking being, and for the begotten god to be the word (the word was god; the only begotten god,these could be the same god, right?) suggests that the word was an entity and not mere idea.
Therefore when it say:
In the beginning with god
It logically means preexistence that as corroborating John 6:38 “i came down from heaven” as indeed preexistence.
JESUS WAS AN ENTITY OR BEING WHEN HE WAS THE WORD.
PHIL 2:6 who being in the “morphe” of god, thought it not robbery to be equal with god, but made himself of no reputation and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men..
As we can see, before he took upon him the form of man, he was already in the “morphe” of god.
“Morphe” is shape as defined in the strongs numbers.
Meaning, Jesus was already in the shape of god before he become man. Having a shape, suggests it is not a mere idea, as an idea is without shape. Jesus as the word, has the shape of god.
It suggests, that God too has a shape, and Jesus having the shape of god implies that they, both, have the same shape, same bodily constitution.
BEC god`s bodily constitution, in every aspect, is the shape of god. If god has a brain or blood cells, the shape of these is also the same with Jesus, same way, with all aspect of god`s constitution therefore Jesus having that shape means that Jesus has equal bodily constitution as god.
God is a spirit therefore his shape and bodily constitution is spirit
Jesus having the shape of god, means he has the shape of the spirit who is god. Therefore jesus as the word, was a spirit.
AN IDEA HAS NO SHAPE
JESUS AS THE WORD HAS A LITERAL SHAPE
They are different. Thus the word is not mere idea.They might argue and say, shape of god is the image of god which is figuratively speaking of righteousness though unbiblical, there is no proof that shape is synonymous to image.
WHAT JOE DID WAS DISCARD MORPHE AS SHAPE, AND REPLACED IT WITH FORM AND QUOTES A DICTIONARY that MORPHE (FORM) is synonymous to eikon (image) thus making MORPHE which is supposed to be shape as FORM or image, thus putting it as a figurative form, which form is image, which is interpreted as righteousness.
The question is,
WHY CHOOSE FORM THAN SHAPE?
Joe assumed god has no shape BEC he is a spirit thus it has no physical shape.
JOE, MAY I ASK, WHERE DID GOD SAID, THAT SHAPE REFERS ONLY TO PHYSICAL SHAPE?
Spirits has shape therefore as suggested by MORPHE ( shape.)
“Inyong narinig ang tinig ngunit wala kayong nakitang anyo,”
Anyo o form yan, meaning, spirits have no form. In what sense?
THE EARTH ALSO HAS NO FORM YET IT HAS MASS.
GEN1:1-2 GOD CREATED THE HEAVENS AND THE EARTH. NOW THE EARTH WAS FORMLESS…
the earth was made but yet FORMLESS.
JER4:23 I BEHELD THE EARTH (Jerusalem) AND LO IT WAS WITHOUT FORM AND VOID…
as we can see, things that have form could be considered without form In what sense? THE EARTH has MASS but no form. What does it mean? Logically, it has not yet the intended form, the god planned form…But it has its initial form….bec it has mass. THE one that Israel HEARD but could not see his form Was an angel, A spirit. It has his form an invisible form but has not manifested in visible form
Why is that?
BEC of the concept that, something with form sometimes is considered as FORMLESS or without form. Thus conclusively, we cannot say, that spirits has no literal form. BEC in reality, god has MORPHE or shape.
If morphe is shape, then it DISPROVES Joe’s claim that PHIL 2:6 speaks of FORM or image of god which is RIGHTEOUSNESS.
Why do we believe MORPHE is shape?
BEC Jesus as word was already a thinking talking being.
HEB10:5 WHEN HE COME INTO THE WORLD HE (THE WORD) SAID…A BODY (Jesus body) THOU HAS PREPARED FOR ME (word)
Which is the ME and which is the body? Obviously, they are distinct entities. ME is logically the word and he was talking therefore a cognitive entity. Some say that prepared human body was mary as a conception host for Jesus. Does it matter? When the the one coming from heaven was cognitive and talking.
…WHEN HE COME INTO THE WORLD HE (THE WORD) SAID…
It was the one from heaven that talked.
JOHN 6:38 I CAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN…
It was not the human body bec it was not the one that came from heaven. If the word was a thinking, talking being, then he is a person, and being BEGOTTEN by god means literally born in the manner wherein a spirit gives birth to a spirit, thus having the same nature, implies they have both the same MORPHE (shape).
THE VERBO IS A NAME
His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.
And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
The verbo is a name having a cognitive person.
…that no man knew, but he himself…
So how come a cognitive person is an idea or an inanimate figure?
Lastly, Jesus was the son of god before he came into the world.
1 John 4:9
In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
He was sent from heaven.
For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
Jesus follows the will of god and for him to come to earth is the will of god meaning, he was sent. Therefore the process of sending begins from heaven and who did god sent?
The only begotten son.
…God sent his only begotten Son into the world…
Therefore even before he came into earth he was already the only begotten son. Meaning, he was already a son of god in heaven.
The problem is how INC view the verbo as mere idea so the question would be:
CAN A BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD IN HEAVEN BE A MERE IDEA?