MYTH DEBUNKED: INC’s THY THRONE IS GOD!

Iglesia ni Cristo believes in monotheism thus jesus to them was never God. Therefore, any mention of jesus as god is met with an adverse argument such as in HEB 1:8 in KJV “thy throne o god”. There scholarship has gone beyond sense to present another self-invented version of it, translating it as “thy throne is god!”.

Heb 1:8’s original source was Psalms 45:6-7. A look at it in Hebrew transliterated version doesn’t show any coherence with the INC theory “thy throne is god”.

Lets look at it.

As you can see, there is no Hebrew word used corresponding to the word “O” or “IS” therefore, there is no certain correct translation between, “thy throne o god” and “thy throne is god” in the old testament text.

Likewise HEB1:8 in Greek, didn’t provide also any valid proof for the two concept.

It say, THE THRONE OF YOU HO (THE) THEOS (GOD). Joe ventilation, a Greek scholar say, HO THEOS means THE GOD, therefore, there is no “thy throne is god” or “thy throne o god” in Heb1:8. It should have been,

THY THRONE THE GOD

here is joe:

What is the Greek word for the term God in the nominative case – the subject of the sentence? It is O THEOS which is pronounced as HO THEOS in the Erasmian pronunciation. The Greek letter OMICRON (o) before the term THEOS is an article in Greek which corresponds to the article “THE” in English. Therefore, the Greek phrase HO THEOS is translated as THE GOD in English.

He likewise said:

A Greek grammarian will tell us about him:

In many instances when the def. art. ho occurs before Theos, God, particular reference is made to God the Father (Zodhiates, Spiros, The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament, AMG Publishers, Chattanooga, TN (1992), p. 730).

Joe said, HO THEOS (the god) refers particularly to the father but then, as illustrated by the greek interlinear bible above, HEB1:8 presents the son as HO THEOS. lets read:

UNTO HOWEVER THE SON THE THRONE OF YOU HO THEOS (THE GOD) TO THE AGE OF THE AGE

Clearly, HO THEOS or THE GOD likewise refer to jesus. This clear evidence, make jesus in the same category with god as, descriptively, THE GOD.

The question is, what makes INC translate HEB1:8 as “thy throne is god” when clearly it should have been,

UNTO THE SON, THY THRONE THE GOD TO THE AGE OF THE AGE

THE GOD referring to jesus and not the throne! However if they insist that the throne is THE GOD, then joe ventilacion contradicted himself by saying THE GOD is a particular reference to the father. It makes INC’s doctrine skewed and topsy turvy.

THE GOD is particularly referring to the father???

But THE GOD is also the throne???

Its a mess!

But they could reconcile it if they would claim, God Almighty is the throne of jesus, but its problematic. Look on the verses below.

As you can see, the throne of jesus is the throne of David called the throne of the lord (yhwh). Therefore, if the throne is god, and the throne is the throne of the lord, then in analogy, “the throne of the lord (yhwh)” should have been, the god of yhwh, throne being god, referring to the throne of David, the throne of jesus which is called the throne (god?) Of the lord (yhwh).

Its problematic! It’s messy!

GOD IS EQUIVALENT TO SOMEONE WORSHIPPED. DO GOD WORSHIP HIMSELF OR PRAY TO HIMSELF BEC GOD ALMIGHTY HAS HIMSELF AS GOD WHEN IT IMPLIES THE THRONE IS GOD THUS MAKING THE THRONE OF YHWH AS THE GOD OF YHWH, SO AS VALID REFERENCE WHEN IT SAY “THY THRONE IS GOD”?

Joe said:

A Greek grammarian will tell us about him:

In many instances when the def. art. ho occurs before Theos, God, particular reference is made to God the Father (Zodhiates, Spiros, The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament, AMG Publishers, Chattanooga, TN (1992), p. 730).

In context, what should have been correct, THE THRONE IS THE GOD or THE SON IS THE GOD?

The correct one must be the one compliant to biblical context, and Greek grammar.
Let’s go further. I’ll prove that joe provided evidence backing up my argument that the correct one is not THE THRONE IS THE GOD but THE SON IS THE GOD, as by the support of JOHN 1:1 in correct Greek grammar.

Just get along. Let’s see how joe was candidly lacking logical interpretation of his source.

Joe Ventilacion, an iglesia ni cristo scholar, said:

What is the usage of the article in the Greek language?

(1) The article is used far more frequently than any other word in the Greek NT, almost 2,000 times, or one out of seven words. (Wallace, Daniel B., Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan Publishing House, Grand Rapids, Michigan (1996), pp. 207, 223)

Since there is an article (TON) before the term God in the second clause of John 1:1 (TON THEON), it is an indication which tells us that the “true” God is identified in the second clause. Who is the “true” God introduced by the article TON in the second clause? A Greek grammarian will tell us about him:

In many instances when the def. art. ho occurs before Theos, God, particular reference is made to God the Father (Zodhiates, Spiros, The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament, AMG Publishers, Chattanooga, TN (1992), p. 730).

Therefore, whenever we encounter in the Greek text that the word THEOS is introduced by the article HO, it is referring to the Father. Going back to the second clause of John 1:1, the TON THEON is referring to the Father. We are not surprise about this truth since it was Christ himself who taught us that the Father is the “only” true God in John 17:3.

Considering this fact, how should the second clause be translated into English? If we would utilize the interlinear translation (a word-for-word translation), the second clause would be translated this way: AND THE WORD WAS WITH THE GOD.

What else is the significance of the article especially when it is being placed before the noun God in the Greek text?

2. The article is frequently used to identify monadic or one-of-a-kind nouns, such as “the devil,” “the sun,” “the Christ.” The monadic article points out a unique object, for example, “the sun” is monadic because there is only one sun.

Since the term God is a monadic noun (one-of-a-kind), it is always being introduced by the article in the Greek. The monadic article points out the identity of the unique or the only true God in the second clause of John 1:1. The only true God in John 1:1 is the Father. The same goes true with John 17:3 in which the article TON was used before the term THEON – TON MONON ALETHINON THEON – the only true God. The term is referring to the Father (John 17:1).

If the true God is always introduced by the article, what about the word THEOS in the third clause of John 1:1? Does it contain an article? No, it does not have an article before it. It just simply says THEOS, not HO THEOS.

What is the usage of the term THEOS in the third clause of John 1:1 in the absence of an article? A Greek grammarian will explain to us its function:

Now when Greek does not use the definite article with a noun, that noun becomes much more like an adjective (Barclay, William, The Gospel of John, Vol. 1, The Westminster Press, Kentucky (2001) p. 46).

The term THEOS (God) in the third clause of John 1:1, in the absence of the article, is functioning as an adjective. It is not functioning as a NOUN but as an ADJECTIVE. If it is a NOUN, then John 1:1 will come up with two Gods instead of just one since the second clause has already the TON THEON. Therefore, THEOS in the third clause is an ADJECTIVE.

🔺

Joe explains John 1:1 “THE WORD IS THEOS”, as something that speaks of the WORD as THEOS in its adjective form bec of lacking the article HO (THE), by quoting a Greek grammarian as source, saying,


Now when Greek does not use the definite article with a noun, that noun becomes much more like an adjective (Barclay, William, The Gospel of John, Vol. 1, The Westminster Press, Kentucky (2001) p. 46).


Look at how joe betrayed his own intellect and logic. The grammarian did not say, that if a noun such as theos lacks the definite article HO (THE), that noun is not functioning as NOUN but adjective, whereas what the grammarian said was,

that noun becomes much more like an adjective 

He did not say THAT NOUN IS FULLY ADJECTIVE!

What do I mean?

When the noun THEOS (GOD) lacks the definite article HO (THE), THE NOUN THEOS (GOD) BECOMES MUCH MORE LIKE AN ADJECTIVE. MUCH MORE in the sense that it is more of an adjective. More means, it has greater degree as adjective than as noun. Therefore it is more of an adjective and less as noun. Still, it functions as noun though in a lesser degree but still a noun. Therefore THEOS (GOD) in john 1:1 is more of an adjective and less as a noun. Still, it is a noun. Therefore, THEOS, without the article HO (THE) functions both as adjective (divine) and noun (god).

Correctly translated, john 1:1 should have been,

THE WORD IS BOTH GOD AND DIVINE

By the greek grammarian contributory effort, it is conclusive therefore, the word being THEOS in noun form, God, is confirmatory that indeed JESUS in his original state as THE WORD, is himself god!

Having that, lets return to HEB 1:8. Does it means, THY THRONE IS THE GOD or THE SON IS THE GOD??

John 1:1 THE WORD IS GOD, gives clarity to what HEB1:8 intended to express. JESUS AS THE WORD IS GOD THEREFORE CONFIRMING THE CORRECT RENDERING OF HEB1:8 AS THE SON IS THE GOD WHOSE THRONE IS TO THE AGE OF THE AGE.

UNTO HOWEVER THE SON THE THRONE OF YOU HO THEOS (THE GOD) TO THE AGE OF THE AGE

If still you contest that, the mere fact that john 1:1 speaks of the word as god as confirmed by the Greek grammarian lesson on Greek grammar, refutes the INC in tremendous parts, such as their concept of john 1:1 that the word is mere idea wherein as proven above, it is god.

And by saying, JESUS NEVER WAS GOD as he was always man, is a tremendous black-eye to INC’s integrity as greek scholarship of john 1:1 proves that jesus is god!

Let’s emphasize:

Now when Greek does not use the definite article (HO or THE) with a noun (THEOS/GOD) that noun becomes much more like an adjective (DIVINE) (Barclay, William, The Gospel of John, Vol. 1, The Westminster Press, Kentucky (2001) p. 46).

 

Therefore, THEOS is more of an adjective, divine, and less as noun, God.

Therefore THEOS is both divine and god.

Therefore john 1:1 THE WORD IS THEOS is correctly translated as THE WORD IS BOTH GOD AND DIVINE.

Therefore, Jesus being the word is both god and divine!

THEREFORE JESUS IS GOD!

The question is, is he THE GOD, HO THEOS, TON THEOS???

YES!

Read:

Therefore, Jesus being THE GOD or THE TRUE GOD, corroborated the fact that HEB1:8 speaks of THE GOD as referring to jesus rather than the throne. Seeing how topsy turvy joe ventilacion argument is as i exposed above, is indeed debunked magnanimously, notwithstanding, the Greek grammarian he used speaks to our favor than his.

Folks! Analyze!

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